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Introduction to Psychology - Test #2 Practice Questions


1.
To fully appreciate the interaction of neural activity, mental processes, and the functioning of human communities, it is most necessary to recognize that people are
A.
consciously aware.
B.
morally accountable.
C.
biopsychosocial systems.
D.
products of multiple neural networks.


2.
Some neurons enable you to grasp objects by relaying outgoing messages to the muscles in your arms and hands. These neurons are called
A.
reflexes.
B.
sensory neurons.
C.
neural prosthetics.
D.
motor neurons.


3.
With regard to the process of neural transmission, a refractory period refers to a time interval in which
A.
a neuron fires more rapidly than usual.
B.
an electrical charge travels from a sensory neuron to a motor neuron.
C.
positively charged ions are pumped back outside a neural membrane.
D.
an individual reflexively withdraws from a pain stimulus.


4.
Sir Charles Sherrington observed that impulses took an unexpectedly long time to travel a neural pathway. His observation provided evidence for the existence of
A.
association areas.
B.
synaptic gaps.
C.
interneurons.
D.
neural networks.


5.
Transferring messages from a motor neuron to a leg muscle requires the neurotransmitter known as
A.
dopamine.
B.
epinephrine.
C.
acetylcholine.
D.
insulin.


6.
An undersupply of the major inhibitory neurotransmitter known as ________ is linked to seizures.
A.
glutamate
B.
GABA
C.
serotonin
D.
ACh


7.
A drug that mimics the effects of a particular neurotransmitter or blocks its reuptake is called a(n)
A.
glutamate.
B.
steroid.
C.
agonist.
D.
opiate.


8.
The central nervous system consists of
A.
sensory and motor neurons.
B.
somatic and autonomic systems.
C.
the brain and the spinal cord.
D.
sympathetic and parasympathetic branches.


9.
The part of the peripheral nervous system that controls the glands and the muscles of the internal organs is called the
A.
somatic nervous system.
B.
neural network.
C.
biopsychosocial system.
D.
autonomic nervous system.


10.
Hormones are the chemical messengers of the
A.
autonomic nervous system.
B.
endocrine system.
C.
parasympathetic nervous system.
D.
somatic nervous system.


11.
The master gland of the endocrine system is the
A.
thyroid gland.
B.
adrenal gland.
C.
pituitary gland.
D.
pancreas.


12.
If your ________ is destroyed, the left side of your brain could not control the movements of your right hand.
A.
brainstem
B.
hippocampus
C.
amygdala
D.
hypothalamus


13.
Which brain structure relays information from the eyes to the visual cortex?
A.
thalamus
B.
amygdala
C.
medulla
D.
cerebellum


14.
Olds and Milner located reward centers in the brain structure known as the
A.
hypothalamus.
B.
cerebellum.
C.
medulla.
D.
amygdala.


15.
The surgical removal of a large tumor from Dane's occipital lobe resulted in extensive loss of brain tissue. Dane is most likely to suffer some loss of
A.
muscular coordination.
B.
visual perception.
C.
speaking ability.
D.
pain sensations.


16.
The motor cortex is located in the ________ lobes.
A.
occipital
B.
temporal
C.
frontal
D.
parietal


17.
By simply thinking about a move, which activates their brain cells, people may be able to move a robotic arm. This best illustrates
A.
neurogenesis.
B.
constraint-induced therapy.
C.
neural prosthetics.
D.
magnetic resonance imaging.


18.
The process of anticipating that you will be punished for misbehaving takes place in the
A.
sensory cortex.
B.
corpus callosum.
C.
association areas.
D.
split brain.


19.
The inability to recognize familiar faces even though one can clearly see and describe features of the faces is associated with damage to the right ________ lobe.
A.
frontal
B.
parietal
C.
occipital
D.
temporal


20.
Brain plasticity may contribute to the effectiveness of
A.
phrenology.
B.
lateralization.
C.
constraint-induced therapy.
D.
neural prosthetics.


21.
Those whose corpus callosum is surgically severed are said to be patients with
A.
brain plasticity.
B.
phrenology.
C.
neurogenesis.
D.
split brains.


22.
In a recent car accident, Tamiko sustained damage to his right cerebral hemisphere. This injury is most likely to reduce Tamiko's ability to
A.
facially portray emotions.
B.
solve arithmetic problems.
C.
understand simple verbal requests.
D.
pronounce familiar words.


23.
People's failure to recognize themselves in a mirror is most likely to be associated with damage to the
A.
corpus callosum.
B.
left cerebral hemisphere.
C.
cerebellum.
D.
right cerebral hemisphere.


24.
In Roger Sperry’s view, the brain creates and controls the mind, which in turn influences the brain. Sperry understands the mind and brain as a
A.
neural prosthetic.
B.
holistic system.
C.
reward center.
D.
complex machine.


25.
Since 1960, psychology has regained an interest in consciousness as psychologists of all persuasions affirmed the importance of
A.
circadian rhythms.
B.
choice blindness.
C.
neuroadaptation.
D.
cognition.


26.
The ability to simultaneously monitor the shape as well as the color of an object best illustrates the value of
A.
the pop-out phenomenon.
B.
selective attention.
C.
dual processing.
D.
conscious awareness.


27.
Our inability to consciously process all the sensory information available to us at any single point in time best illustrates the necessity of
A.
explicit memory.
B.
selective attention.
C.
implicit memory.
D.
change blindness.


28.
The pop-out phenomenon illustrates that some stimuli almost inevitably trigger
A.
implicit memories.
B.
parallel processing.
C.
selective attention.
D.
change blindness.


29.
The circadian rhythm is influenced by light-sensitive retinal proteins that trigger signals to the
A.
suprachiasmatic nucleus.
B.
amygdala.
C.
thyroid gland.
D.
sleep spindles.


30.
After flying from California to New York, Arthur experienced a restless, sleepless night. His problem was most likely caused by a disruption of his normal
A.
sleep spindles.
B.
circadian rhythm.
C.
hypnagogic sensations.
D.
alpha wave patterns.


31.
A periodic, natural, reversible loss of consciousness that involves five distinct stages is known as
A.
the circadian rhythm.
B.
narcolepsy.
C.
manifest dreaming.
D.
sleep.


32.
REM sleep is called paradoxical sleep because
A.
our heart rate is slow and steady, while our breathing is highly irregular.
B.
we are deeply asleep but can be awakened easily.
C.
our nervous system is highly active, while our voluntary muscles hardly move.
D.
it leads to highly imaginative dreams that are perceived as colorless images.


33.
Forty-year-old Lance insists that he never dreams. Research suggests that he probably
A.
would report a vivid dream if he were awakened during REM sleep.
B.
dreams during Stage 4 rather than during REM sleep.
C.
experiences more Stage 4 sleep than most people.
D.
passes through the sleep cycle much more rapidly than most people.


34.
Sleep deprivation has been shown to
A.
increase attentiveness to highly motivating tasks.
B.
reduce hypertension.
C.
diminish immunity to disease.
D.
decrease narcolepsy.


35.
The pituitary gland releases a growth hormone during
A.
Stage 2 sleep.
B.
Stage 1 sleep.
C.
slow-wave sleep.
D.
paradoxical sleep.


36.
Which of the following is the best advice for a person concerned about occasional insomnia?
A.
Relax and drink a glass of milk before bedtime.
B.
Eat a big dinner late in the evening so you'll feel drowsy at bedtime.
C.
Relax with a drink of your favorite alcoholic beverage just before bedtime.
D.
Engage in some form of vigorous physical exercise shortly before bedtime.


37.
Mr. Oates always sleeps restlessly, snorting and gasping throughout the night. It is most likely that Mr. Oates suffers from
A.
sleep apnea.
B.
narcolepsy.
C.
night terrors.
D.
insomnia.


38.
Nightmares are to ________ as night terrors are to ________.
A.
REM sleep; Stage 4 sleep
B.
delta waves; alpha waves
C.
Stage 4 sleep; Stage 1 sleep
D.
Stage 1 sleep; REM sleep


39.
Greg remembered a recent dream in which his girlfriend suddenly grabbed the wheel of his speeding car. Greg's therapist suggested that the dream might be a representation of the girlfriend's efforts to avoid sexual intimacy. According to Freud, the therapist was attempting to reveal the ________ of Greg's dream.
A.
emotional content
B.
circadian rhythm
C.
latent content
D.
manifest content


40.
Research indicates that the percentage of total sleep spent in REM sleep is higher in ________ than in ________.
A.
artists; scientists
B.
infants; adults
C.
females; males
D.
older adults; adolescents


41.
Twenty-eight-year-old Theodore has an irrational fear of dogs. His therapist hypnotizes him and asks him to mentally relive his earliest childhood experience with a dog. The therapist is making use of
A.
hypnotic induction.
B.
age regression.
C.
pseudomemory.
D.
temporal dissociation.


42.
The claim that hypnotic phenomena are regulated by normal conscious processes is associated with the theory that hypnosis reflects the power of
A.
parallel processing.
B.
dissociation.
C.
selective attention.
D.
social influence.


43.
If highly hypnotizable people are no better than others at simultaneously reading a book and listening to music, this would most clearly challenge
A.
dissociation theory.
B.
hypnotic suggestibility.
C.
serial processing.
D.
social influence theory.


44.
Understanding hypnosis in terms of focused attention, distinctive brain activity, and the presence of an authoritative presence in a legitimate context, requires an integrated ________ approach.
A.
serial processing
B.
dissociation
C.
biopsychosocial
D.
social influence


45.
The subfield of psychology that provides psychology's contribution to the prevention and treatment of illness is known as
A.
medical psychology.
B.
health psychology.
C.
behavioral psychology.
D.
psychobiology.


46.
Rush hour traffic is to upset stomach as ________ is to ________.
A.
fight; flight
B.
Type B; Type A
C.
lymphocyte; macrophage
D.
stressor; stress reaction


47.
In response to stress, the adrenal glands release
A.
epinephrine.
B.
lymphocytes.
C.
carcinogens.
D.
serotonin.


48.
A stress-moderating hormone released by cuddling and associated with pair-bonding is known as
A.
serotonin.
B.
cortisol.
C.
norepinephrine.
D.
oxytocin.


49.
Aging women who had experienced prolonged stress as caregivers for children with serious disorders experienced a premature decrease in the size of their
A.
adrenal glands.
B.
frontal lobes.
C.
telomeres.
D.
lymphocytes.


50.
Because of poverty, unemployment, and overcrowding, residents of impoverished areas are especially likely to experience
A.
spontaneous remission.
B.
low blood sugar levels.
C.
the proliferation of lymphocytes.
D.
hypertension.


51.
Friedman and Rosenman referred to competitive, hard-driving, impatient, and easily angered individuals as ________ personalities.
A.
hypertensive
B.
chronic
C.
Type A
D.
Type B


52.
In their classic nine-year study, Friedman and Rosenman reported that, compared with Type A men, Type B men were
A.
more susceptible to stomach ulcers.
B.
less susceptible to stomach ulcers.
C.
more susceptible to heart attacks.
D.
less susceptible to heart attacks.


53.
Andrea's physician has suggested that a program of relaxation training would provide the best treatment for her high blood pressure. The physician probably considers Andrea's hypertension to be a(n) ________ illness.
A.
immune deficiency
B.
carcinogenic
C.
psychophysiological
D.
respiratory


54.
B lymphocytes inhibit ________, whereas T lymphocytes inhibit ________.
A.
bacterial infections; viral infections
B.
heart attacks; strokes
C.
NK cells; cancer cells
D.
HIV; AIDS


55.
Which of the following BEST explains why stress heightens vulnerability to bacterial and viral infections?
A.
Stress hormones accelerate the “hardening” of the arteries.
B.
Stress hormones facilitate the depositing of cholesterol and fat around the heart.
C.
Stress hormones suppress the production of lymphocytes.
D.
Stress hormones trigger the release of carcinogens.


56.
Stress is most likely to speed the progression from HIV to AIDS by
A.
stimulating the release of endorphins.
B.
accelerating the production of NK cells.
C.
inhibiting the production of lymphocytes.
D.
slowing the shortening of telomeres.


57.
To alleviate the stress of losing her job, Alicia enrolled in a work retraining program that led to full-time employment. Alicia's behavior best illustrates
A.
learned helplessness.
B.
a fight-or-flight reaction.
C.
problem-focused coping.
D.
a Type A profile.


58.
Addressing stressors with problem-focused coping would be most characteristic of those with
A.
learned helplessness.
B.
personal control.
C.
a pessimistic outlook.
D.
a fight-or-flight reaction.


59.
Alex experiences little stress because he expects things to work out the way he wants them to. This best illustrates the value of
A.
a Type A personality.
B.
spontaneous remission.
C.
optimism.
D.
the general adaptation syndrome.


60.
Which of the following is most likely to foster stronger immune functioning?
A.
carcinogens
B.
social support
C.
a Type A personality
D.
reduced lymphocyte levels


61.
Undergraduate women who had been sexually abused as children were especially likely to report health problems if they had
A.
grown up in a religious family.
B.
kept the abuse a secret.
C.
been victimized before age 5.
D.
been victimized by a stranger rather than by a close relative.


62.
The results of early research on biofeedback were surprising because they indicated that people could learn to control bodily functions regulated by the
A.
somatic nervous system.
B.
autonomic nervous system.
C.
cerebellum.
D.
frontal lobes.


63.
During meditative relaxation, a part of the ________ lobe that tracks where we are in space is ________ active than usual.
A.
frontal; less
B.
parietal; less
C.
frontal; more
D.
parietal; more


64.
Whether a health care treatment is mainstream medicine or an alternative medicine depends on whether the treatment has been
A.
frequently used and is currently popular.
B.
administered by a licensed MD.
C.
scientifically validated as effective.
D.
used for diseases that are curable.


65.
The correlation between religiosity and longevity has been observed to be
A.
nonexistent when only men are considered.
B.
nonexistent when only women are considered.
C.
stronger when only men are considered than when only women are considered.
D.
stronger when only women are considered than when only men are considered.